Psychiatry Question Bank – 265 Multiple Choice Questions for JIPMER PG Entrance Exam – Part 3

265 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) with Answers for JIPMER PG Entrance Exam – Part 3:

201. Characteristics of delirium tremens include all of the fol­lowing, except

A. An introductory grand mal seizure

B. Auditory hallucinations associated with clear thoughts and proper orientation

C. Tremors and sweating

D. Blackouts

E. Disorientation

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202. A heroin overdose is characterized by all of the follow­ing symptoms, except.

A. Mydriasis

B. Hypotension

C. Diminished reflexes

D. Coma

E. Respiratory depression

203. Dementia is characterized ail of the following statements, except:

A. Demented patients are often depressed

B. The ability to generalize from past experiences and to experiences and to recognize Hie relationship between similar situations is impaired

C. An early feature is an inability to recall events from the distant past

D. Demented patients may experience hallucinations

E. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease is a dementia caused by a slow virus infection

Every question or incomplete statement has only one answer in the following combination:

A. If the answers 1, 2, and 3 are true

B. If the answers 1 and 3 are true

C. If the answers 2 and 4 are true

D. If only the answer 4 is true

E. If all the four answers are true

204. Intelligence tests have which of the following character­istics?

A. They compare the performance of an individual as compared to a large group

B. They are influenced by culture

C. They do not measure an individual’s entire intellectual capacity

D. They define an IQ of 100 as average

E. All of the above

205. When attempting to treat a patient with a paranoid per­sonality disorder the physician should:

A. Avoid setting limits

B. Apologize quickly for any mistakes he /she may make

C. Have a sense of humor

D. Explain everything in detail

206. Obtain an appropriate sexual history, it is necessary for the physician to inquire about:

A. Attitudes of the family about sex

B. Any history of sexual abuse

C. The first sexual experience

D. Current sexual functioning

207. An attractive 43-year-old woman makes seductive com­ments to her physician a few days after a mastectomy. She had remarried 1 year previously after having di­vorced her husband for having an affair with a younger woman. She has no previous psychiatric history. Fac­tors attributable to her behavior include:

A. Anxiety that her new husband may no longer find her attractive

B. Acute schizophrenic psychosis

C. Acute organic mental syndrome

D. Stranger anxiety

208. Risk factors for a patient’s violent behavior in a physician’s office include:

A. A history of manic disease

B. A history of suicide attempts

C. Alcohol abuse

D. Head trauma

209. If a middle-aged man complains of feeling deprived of his thoughts, this is:

A. A manifestation of thought blocking

B. A symptom of depressive psychosis

C. A Delusion of passive control

D. A symptom of histrionic amnesia

210. Symptoms usually present in somatization disorder in­clude:

A. Dysmenorrheal

B. Palpitations

C. Anxiety

D. Nausea

211. Patients suffering from a personality disorder, as opposed to those from neurosis, are to:

A. Accuse others for their own problems

B. Maintain a therapeutic relationship

C. Exhibit certain abnormalities in adolescence

D. Require psychotherapy

212. Polysomnography has been useful in studying which of the following conditions?

A. Ictal diseases

B. Impotence

C. Depression

D. Schizophrenia

213. Which of the following statements concerning social deprivation are correct?

A. It may be associated with severe mental retardation

B. It may be associated with a severe personality disorder

C. It may be experimentally modeled in animals

D. It frequently occurs in poorly organized hospital wards

214. A patient with a paranoid personality usually:

A. Becomes psychotic at times

B. Restricts his emotions

C. Avoids interpersonal conflicts

D. Shows excessive sensitivity to the behavior of others

215. A characteristics of neurotic depression include:

A. Recurrent short hypomanic episodes

B. A sustained, low-level intensity of mood

C. Unresponsiveness to therapy

D. A lack of psychotic symptoms

216. Which of the following statements concerning paranoid schizophrenia are correct?

A. The diseased patients rapidly lose their social abilities

B. The onset is earlier as compared to that in other diagnostic subgroups

C. The decline in cognitive functions is more rapid as compared to that in other diagnostic subgroups

D. Hallucinations and delusions of grandeur are common manifestations

217. According to the DSM-III-R the diagnosis of schizophre­nia requires:

A. That the symptoms be observed over a period of 6 months or more

B. A decline in the previous level of functioning

C. An onset before the age of 45

D. That the patient complains of auditory hallucination

218. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include:

A. Flatness of thought

B. Delusion of thought withdrawal

C. Marked flatness of affect

D. Auditory hallucination

219. A 67-year-old woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is brought to the hospital by her husband. Four times in the last month, she was found wandering about the yard in her bedclothes. Which of the following etiologic factors should be considered?

A. Hypoxia

B. Aminophyline intoxication

C. Senile dementia

D. Cerebrovascular disease

E. Steroid-induced psychosis

220. A manic state is characterized by which of the following symptoms?

A. Diffuseness and self-assurance

B. Holothymic hallucination and delusions of grandeur

C. Increased activity and a decreased need for sleep

D. Specific precipitating causes preceding the onset of symptoms

221. Lithium carbonate therapy is useful:

A. In the treatment of an acute manic episode

B. To prevent the recurrence of depression

C. To prevent the recurrence of mania

D. In the treatment of acute depression

222. Delirium tremens, in the initial phase, may be effectively prevented by:

A. Meprobamate

B. Benzodiazepines

C. Chlormethiazole (Heminervrin)

D. Barbiturates

223. Characteristics of alcohol dependence include:

A. The need for drinking every day in order to maintain one’s performance

B. The need to increase the amount consumed to elicit the same effect

C. Tremor, sweating, and disorientation developing after two days of Abstinence

D. Two or more blackouts during an acute alcohol abuse period

E. All of the above

224. Conditions which increase the risk of subdural hemor­rhage include:

A. Hypertension

B. Advanced age

C. Atherosclerosis

D. Alcoholism

225. Which of the following statements about transsexualism are correct?

A. It is an expression of homosexuality

B. Cross dressing is necessary for sexual arousal

C. Biologic factors have a significant role in its etiology

D. It is associated with early childhood developmental * disturbances

226. The side-effect of tricyclic antidepressants includes:

A. Hypertension

B. Dry mouth

C. Diarrhea

D. Blurred vision

227. Cognitive psychotherapy of depression stresses which of the following:

A. Drug and alcohol addiction

B. Stressed interpersonal relations

C. Disturbances of the norms of social activities

D. Abnormalities of perception and the thought process

228. Which of the following statement concerning juvenile suicide are false?

A. The prevalence of juvenile suicide attempts has increased

B. Impulsive patients are at a higher risk

C. The leading cause of death among adolescents is suicide

D. Child abuse is usually not associated with suicide

229. Correct statements about illusions include:

A. They are elicited by an existing environmental stimulus and negatively affect sensory discrimination

B. They are misperception of an existing environmental stimulus

C. They are more frequently observed in organic mental disorders than in functional psychiatric illnesses

D. They are not always associated with psychoses

E. All of the above

230. Psychotherapy of depression stresses the importance of:

A. Drug and alcohol addiction

B. Maladaptive interpersonal relationships

C. Disturbances of social standards

D. Incorrect perception and thinking

231. Correct statements about psychiatric epidemiologic stud­ies include:

A. At least 25 percent of the population suffers from some type of psychiatric disorder once during their lifetime

B. Morbidity rates among females are higher than those among males

C. More men suffer from addiction than women

D. The prevalence of depression is grossly identical in both sexes

232. Psychoanalytic theories state that defense mechanisms:

A. Inhibit conflicts from becoming conscious

B. Are frequently used as physiological tools in accommodation

C. Are essential mechanisms of neurotic symptom formation?

D. Are mechanisms of resistance during psychotherapy?

233. Characteristics of personality disorder include:

A. A gradual flattening of the thought process

B. A normal sense of reality

C. Delusions, observed over a long period

D. The possible occurrence of psychotic episodes

234. Childhood experiences of criminals and people with antisocial behavior usually include:

A. A discrepancy between the words and behavior of their parents

B. The inconsistent application of praise and punishment

C. The reinforcement of an antisocial behavior

D. Lack of one of the parents

235. The initial therapy of conversion disorder includes:

A. The analysis and the discussion of the improvement of any stress symptoms

B. Assuring these patient that their symptoms will improve

C. Confirming to these patient that their prognosis is good

D. A confrontation with psychological issues

236. Antidepressant-type therapy may be of use in which of the following conditions?

A. Bulimia

B. Affective disorders

C. Compulsive personality disorder

D. Anancastic disorder

237. Primary (psychological and sociopsychological) disease advantages include which of the following?

A. The disease elicits attention and care in the environment

B. Affective conflicts are repressed from consciousness

C. The disease satisfies an unconscious need for dependency

D. The patient is given all the excuses a society can offer

238. Which of the following defense mechanisms are com­mon for antisocial, borderline, and histrionic personality disorders?

A. Dissociation

B. Denial

C. Splitting

D. Acting out

239. A 29-year-old boy complains of attacks associated with severe anxiety and fears of having them again. Which of the following medications may be effective in his condi­tion?

A. Haloperidol

B. Imipramine (Melipramin)

C. Meprobamate (Andaxin)

D. Diazepam (Seduxen)

240. Delusions are best defined as false considerations which:

A. Persist for a long time despite being obviously unrealistic

B. Originate from the misinterpretation of existing external stimuli

C. Appear to be real to the individual

D. Are pathognostic for schizophrenia?

241. A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room by his father. The father reported that his son had taken three tablets of diazepam (seduxen) in a suicide attempt. The boy minimized the episode, saying that he was just up­set about school. The father became angry at his son for making such a fuss over nothing. The nurses started making jokes about the three diazepam “suicide”. The father was impatient to take his son back home. Both were resistant to a psychiatric evaluation since the over­dose was not life threatening, the most appropriate treat­ment at this time would include:

A. Calling other family members to the hospital

B. Reporting the event to the boy’s school and obtaining information about his academic problems

C. Encouraging the father and son to stay and to be interviewed individually

D. Encouraging the father to keep an eye on his son

Additional therapeutic approaches at this time would include:

1. Initiating antidepressant therapy

2. Warning the father to hide any medications kept at home

3. Giving the son an excuse from school for a few days

4. Suggesting a family consultation to relieve any present tensions at home

The son remained silent and the father insisted on going home the following day the boy was found dead from a self-inflicted gunshot. This case represents common errors in evaluating a suicide attempt, including:

1. Not adequately evaluating the son’s emotions

2. Not appreciating what the first suicide attempt meant to the son and his Father

3. Not assessing adequately the father’s capacity to support his son

4. Not hospitalizing the patient, even if it was against his will

242. Which of the following symptoms are indicative of major depression?

A. A loss of appetite; dipsomania; disturbances of sexual function

B. Abandoning one’s previous social-positions and roles in occupation and in the family

C. Any suicidal ideation or attempt

D. Any abnormalities of the perception of reality, delusions, hallucinations, and confusion

243. Conditions that may be associated with the catatonic syndrome (rigidity, mutism, catalepsies, and waxy flexibility) include:

A. An affective disorder

B. Viral encephalitis

C. Hypnosis

D. Schizophrenia

E. All of the above

244. Uncommon side-effects of tricyclic antidepressant therapy include which of the following?

A. A dry mouth

B. Tremor

C. Constipation

D. Extra-pyramidal movement disorders

245. Which of the following somatic diseases may be associ­ated with a depression syndrome?

A. Pancreatic carcinoma

B. Hypertension

C. Hypothyroidism

D. Peptic ulcer disease

246. Which of the following medications are capable of elic­iting mania?

A. Amphetamines

B. Tricyclic antidepressants

C. Corticosteroids

D. Proserpine

247. Characteristics of a developing schizophrenia include:

A. Sufficient social functioning before the onset of the disease

B. A family history of psychosis

C. A sudden onset of the associated symptoms

D. A low socioeconomic position

248. Psychological tests that cannot be used alone to diag­nose schizophrenia include:

A. Rorschach test

B. Minnesota multiphase personality inventory (MMPI)

C. Thematic apperception test (TAT)

D. MAWI

E. All of the above

249. Symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome include:

A. Disturbances of remote memory

B. Disorientation to space and to time

C. Confabulation

D. Anosognosia

250. Atherosclerotic (multi-infarct) dementias are character­ized by:

A. Associated internal and neurological symptoms

B. Numerous malacic foci in the brain

C. A focal loss of memory

D. A dominant inheritance pattern

251. The results of the metabolic and neuroradiological tests of severe chronic (residual) schizophrenic patients usu­ally demonstrate a cortical atrophy in which lobes?

A. The frontal lobe

B. The parietal lobe

C. The temporal lobe

D. The occipital lobe

252. A 45-year-old man is admitted to the surgical ward. When interviewed by the nurse he states that he is married, is a father of three boys, and that he lives with his family. He had previously told his physician that he had been living with his father since his girlfriend and her two chil­dren had left him. When asked about these contradic­tions he became confused. Conditions that are likely to account for the patient’s confabulation include:

A. Korsakoff’s syndrome

B. Diabetes mellitus

C. Presenile dementia

D. Addison’s disease

253. Types of brain damages that are associated with a vio­lent behavior include:

A. Encephalitis

B. Birth trauma

C. Mild traumas to the skull

D. Epileptic grand mat seizures

254. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is characterized by:

A. A sudden onset

B. Nystagmus and ophthalmoplegia

C. A somnolent state

D. Pathologic changes in the mamillary body

255. Characteristic symptoms of atypical (pathologic) binges include:

A. Actions those are not characteristic for the individual in other situations

B. Visual hallucinations

C. Amnesia

D. Associated epileptiform seizures

256. Which of the following statements concerning interrela­tionships between anxiety and depression are correct?

A. Many depressed patients are anxious

B. Many patients with a panic disorder will develop depression

C. The same therapy may be useful in both depression and anxiety

D. Hereditary transmission is recognized in both depression and panic disorder

E. All of the above

257. Which of the following conditions are associated with mutism?

A. Alcohol withdrawal

B. Conversion neurosis

C. Catatonic schizophrenia

D. Depression

E. Ganser’s syndrome

258. Echolalia is characteristic for:

A. Catatonic schizophrenia

B. Anorexia nervosa

C. Alzheimer’s disease

D. Infantile autism

E. Petit mal epilepsy

259. Characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia include:

A. Compulsive thoughts

B. Progressive dementia

C. Depersonalization

D. Waking up early in the morning

E. Thought withdrawal

260. Which of the following symptoms or findings suggest a poor prognosis in acute schizophrenia psychosis?

A. An IQ above the average

B. Flatness of affect

C. An abrupt onset

D. A normal premorbid personality

E. Marked thought disorder

261. Characteristic symptoms of morphine withdrawal include:

A. Excessive yawing

B. Hypotension

C. Muscle spasms

D. Dry conjunctiva

E. Diarrhea

262. Which of the following statements is characteristic for tardive dyskinesia?

A. Recent phenothiazine therapy is usually found in the history

B. The intramuscular injection of benztropine rapidly relieves the symptoms

C. Grimacing is typical

D. Intentional tremor is diagnostic for the condition

E. The administration of phenothiazine may precipitate the attack

263. Grandious delusions may occur in which of the follow­ing conditions?

A. Schizophrenia

B. Frontal lobe tumor

C. Manic syndrome

D. Compulsive neurosis

E. Amphetamine intoxication

264. Characteristic symptoms of acute manic psychosis in­clude:

A. Lack of insight

B. Flight of ideas

C. Confabulation

D. Distractibility

E. Depression in the family history

265. Characteristic symptoms of depression include:

A. Diminished concentration

B. Hallucinations

C. Hypochondriasis

D. Delusions of persecution

E. Weight loss

Answer

201.B 202.A 203.C 204.E 205.C 206.A207.A 208.E 209.B 210.D 211.B 212.A 213.A 214.D 215.C 216.D 217.A 218.C 219. A,E 220.A 221.A 222.A 223.E 224.C 225.D 226.B 227.C 228.D 229.E 230.C 231.B 232.A 233.C 234.C 235.B 236.A 237.A 238.C 239.C 240.A 241.C 242.A 243.E 244.D 245.B 246.A 247.C 248.E 249.C 250.A 251.B 252.A 253.A 254B 255.A 256.E 257.B,C,D 258.A,C,D 259.C,E 260.B,E 261.A,C,E 262.C,E 263. A,B,C,E 264.B,D,E 265. A,C,E