323 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) with Answers on “Methodology of Educational Research” for Education Students – Part 1:
1. What does randomization ensure in experimental research?
(a) Uniformity of the groups
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(b) Similarity of the groups
(c) Uniformity and similarity of the groups
(d) Uniformity, similarity and equalization of the groups.
2. Power of the test of significance means probability of what?
ADVERTISEMENTS:
(a) Incorrect rejection of the null hypothesis
(b) Correct rejection of the null hypothesis
(c) Incorrect acceptance of the null hypothesis
(d) Correct acceptance of the null hypothesis.
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3. What does F-ratio mean?
(a) A ratio between mean SSA and mean SSW
(b) A ratio which is always more than 1.0
(c) A ratio between mean S ST and mean S SA
(d) A ratio between mean SST and mean SSW .
4. In which situation x2 (Cbi square) test can be used?
(a) k = 2, but some expected frequencies are less than S
(b) df is greater than I, but more than 20 per cent of frequencies are smaller than S
(c) Any expected frequency is smaller than I
(d) None of the above is found to be a fact.
5. What is wrong about non-parametric tests or significance?
(a) They are distribution-free techniques of analysis
(b) They assume that groups should be homogeneous
(c) They make no assumption about the parameters
(d) They do make certain assumptions, but these are fewer and less stringent.
6. In evaluating the significance of the research problem, an important social consideration is
(a) The genuine interest of the researcher in the problem.
(b) Practical value of the findings to educationists, parents and social workers, etc.
(c) Necessary skills, abilities and background of knowledge of the researcher.
(d) Possibility of obtaining reliable and valid data by the researchers.
7. A hypothesis in educational research need not be
(a) A compatible with well-attested theories and models.
(b) Logically consistent and pertinent to the question under consideration.
(c) Capable of establishing generalizations that can be applied in many areas of education or other fields.
(d) None of these.
8. Thinking analogously about hypothesis, a researcher should
(a) First bet and then roll the dice.
(b) First roll the dice and then bet.
(c) Change his bet after the data are in.
(d) Have no bets, but dice only.
9. If the population on which a study is based is such that all its units can be reached, it is termed as
(a) Target population.
(b) Accessible population.
(c) Homogeneous population.
(d) Heterogeneous population.
10. Sampling frame means
(a) Identification of target and accessible population.
(b) Defining sample unit and selecting units.
(c) Preparing a complete list of the units of a finite population for drawing a sample.
(d) Fixing the sample size and drawing a sample.
11. Action research is ordinarily concerned with problems
(a) Of general nature.
(b) Constituting universal truths.
(c) Are of immediate concern and call for immediate solutions.
(d) Have long-range implications.
12. What is the aim of educational research?
(a) Identifying major problems that need to be solved
(b) Searching for the new facts and principles underlying the process of education
(c) Identifying the aims of education
(d) Identifying the values that need to be inculcated in the pupils.
13. Why is research in education important for teachers?
(a) It adds to their academic qualifications.
(b) It makes them wiser
(c) It makes them better teachers
(d) It enables them to make best possible judgments about what should be taught and how.
14. What does view of related research and literature not do?
(a) Provide the researcher with sufficient useful knowledge
(b) Help the researcher in identifying needed problems of research
(c) Make the researcher competent and perfect in doing research
(d) Make the researcher aware of the pitfalls that plagued his predecessors.
15. Who said that “the problem is a proposed question for solution”?
(a) John C. Torensand
(b) J.C. Almak
(c) Fred N. Kurlinger
(d) John W. Best.
16. What type of study means comparison of likeness and differences among phenomena to find out factors which seem to accompany or contribute to the occurrence of certain events?
(a) A correlational study
(b) An experimental study
(c) A causal comparative study
(d) An ex post-facto study.
17. Which of the following is not a correct statement?
(a) A test can be reliable without being valid
(b) A test cannot be valid without being reliable
(c) A test can be reliable and valid both
(d) A test can be valid without being reliable.
18. Which of the following is undesirable in a questionnaire?
(a) Asking for unnecessary information that lengthens the questionnaire
(b) Avoiding ambiguity in questions
(c) Simplest possible wording and suitable vocabulary
(d) Avoiding questions which the subjects will not answer or will not answer truthfully.
19. Which of the following is desirable in a questionnaire?
(a) Emotionally toned questions
(b) Too broad questions
(c) Two ideas in one question
(d) Questions which will elicit valid and reliable answers.
20. What does the face validity of a questionnaire NOT involve?
(a) Relating each question to the topic under investigation
(b) Checking the responses which the questionnaire elicits against an external criterion.
(c) Seeing that there is an adequate coverate of the overall topic
(d) Seeing that questions are clear and unambiguous.
21. Projective technique is used for measuring
(a) Individual’s need for self-actualization.
(b) Individual’s inventoried interests.
(c) Individual’s dominant feelings, emotions, conflicts, needs which are, generally, repressed by the individual and are stored up in the unconscious mind.
(d) Individual’s value-system.
22. Which of the following is not a projective technique?
(a) Rorschach
(b) T.A.T.
(c) Sentence-Completion Test
(d) Maudsley Personality Inventory (MPI).
23. Which of the following is not measured by the T.A. T. test?
(a) Personality needs
(b) Emotions
(c) Personality adjustment.
(d) Reasoning ability.
24. Which is a projective test?
(a) Edwards Personal Preference Schedule (EPPS)
(b) Allport Vemon-Lindzey Study of Values.
(c) Rorschach Test
(d) Minnesotta Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI).
25. What is the meaning of Data?
(a) Facts
(b) Truths
(c) Observation
(d) Marks obtained.
26. What are the types of data according to nature?
(a) Qualitative
(b) Quantitative
(c) Both of them
(d) None of these.
27. What are the kinds of variables?
(a) Continuous
(b) Discrete
(c) Both
(d) None of these.
28. On what basis data are classified?
(a) Clarity
(b) Stability
(c) Flexibility
(d) All of these.
29. What is the meaning of population in Educational Research?
(a) Male, Female, Children
(b) Observation of all the units
(c) Elites
(d) All of these.
30. Who has called sample an element of facts?
(a) W.G Kokaran
(b) John W. Best
(c) George J. Mouley
(d) W.S. Travers.
31. High intelligence combined with high motivation raises the levels of academic achievement and high intelligence combined with low motivation lowers academic achievement, this indicates that
(a) Intelligence is more important a factor of achievement.
(b) Motivation is more important a factor of achievement.
(c) Intelligence interacts with motivation.
(d) Intelligence and motivation are equally important as factors of achievement.
32. Which of the following does not determine the size of an adequate sample?
(a) The nature of the population
(b) The type of sampling design
(c) The degree of precision desired
(d) Researcher’s insight into sampling.
33. Which of the following does not belong to the group of the other three?
(a) Logical validity
(b) Construct validity
(c) Sampling validity
(d) Curricular validity.
34. Which of the following is not correct about inventories?.
(a) They are instruments that attempt to “take stock” of one or more aspects of an individual’s behaviour rather than to measure in the usual sense
(b) They require subjects to perform at their maximum level
(c) They list items relating to the factor being appraised and request subjects to indicate preferences or check items that describe their typical behaviour.
(d) The responses obtained on the inventories are evaluated to obtain descriptions of certain fundamental predic-positions of the subjects.
35. With whom is the sociometric technique closely identified?
(a) J.F. Moreno
(b) Helen Jennings
(c) P.V. Young
(d) Henry A. Murray.
36. In which study sociometric methods cannot be used with advantage?
(a) Personality
(b) Leadership
(c) Group structure
(d) Social adjustments.
37. Which of the following is not employed in sociometric studies ?
(a) Questionnaires
(b) Rating scales
(c) Interviews
(d) Observations.
38. What is “MAXMINCON”?
(a) A design of experimental research
(b) A method of statistical analysis
(c) A combination of three key words each pointing out to a separate principle of designing experimental research
(d) None of these.
39. What are the characteristics of a good measuring technique?
(a) Objectivity
(b) Reliability
(c) Usability
(d) All of these.
40. “In general words questionnaire refers to a device for securing answers to questions by using a form which the respondent fills in himself’. Who has defined questionnaire in these words?
(a) Goode and Hatt
(b) Goode and Scates
(c) Barr, Davis and Johnson
(d) John W. Best.
41. Which is the technique of investigation involving face to face conversation?
(a) Questionnaire
(b) Interview
(c) Observation
(d) Sociometry.
42. Which techniques are most used in Educational Research?
(a) Questionnaire
(b) Interview
(c) Observation
(d) Sociometry.
43. Which is the best technique of measuring the internal feelings of a student?
(a) Questionnaire
(b) Interview
(c) Projective technique
(d) Sociometry.
44. Which is the best measurement of social status?
(a) Questionnaire
(b) Interview
(c) Observation
(d) Sociometry.
45. Which is not described by Kerlinger as a method of controlling extraneous variables?
(a) Purposive sampling
(b) Selection
(c) Randomization
(d) Matching.
46. What determines whether a researcher should use .05 or .01 level of significance for testing the hypothesis?
(a) How important are the findings
(b) How much risk is involved in incorrect finding
(c) How much precision is required
(d) All of these.
47. What determines the choice of statistical test to be used in the analysis of the data of the quantitative research?
(a) The power of test
(b) Kind of sampling used
(c) Nature of population
(d) All of these.
48. What is a research describing developmental changes in personality characteristics by studying the same group at different age- levels?
(a) Developmental study
(b) Trend study
(c) Longitudinal growth study
(d) Cross-sectional growth study.
49. What is studying different groups of children of different ages simultaneously and describing their developmental characteristics?
(a) Longitudinal growth study
(b) Trend study
(c) Time series study
(d) Cross-sectional growth study.
50. What do correctional studies reveal?
(a) Whether there is relationship between the variables or not
(b) How much relationship is there and of what kind between the variables
(c) Which variable is the cause and which is the effect
(d) None of these.
51. The case study is the study of a
(a) Single group.
(b) Single individual.
(c) Single community or family.
(d) Single unit done intensively to bring out the processes and dynamics underlying its problems and functioning.
52. What does Descriptive Research include according to Van Dalen?
(a) Survey studies
(b) Inter-relationship studies
(c) Developmental studies
(d) All of these.
53. What is the aim of Survey Research?
(a) Describing the current status of a phenomenon, a group or an institution
(b) Comparing the current status of these with some available standards and making suggestions for improving the status
(c) Studying a small sample and drawing inferences about the larger population
(d) All of these.
54. Which of the following is not correct about ex-post-facto research?
(a) The dependent variable is measured first, and after that the independent variable or variables are studied
(b) It is possible to exercise much rigorous control in this and obtain highly valid results
(c) It is not possible in this research to assign the subjects to the treatment groups randomly
(d) It provides support for any number of different and sometimes contradictory hypothesis.
55. Which of the following statements is most correct about the difference between Applied and Action Research?
(a) While applied research adds to an organized body of scientific knowledge, action research does not do that
(b) While the findings of applied research have practical implications for educational practices, action research is not concerned with that
(c) While applied research and action research both are undertaken to solve immediate practical problems, in action research the researcher is the same person as the practitioner who will use the findings of the research
(d) The difference between them is that of nomenclature only; otherwise they are the same.
56. What is the importance of the correlation coefficient?
(a) The fact that there is linear relationship between the correlated variables
(b) The fact that it is one of the most valid measures of education
(c) The fact that it allows one to determine the degree or strength of the association between two variables
(d) The fact that it is a non-parametric method of statistical analysis.
57. Which will be the most appropriate method of statistical analysis if a researcher wants to know how much contribution a JRF-test makes to the over-all success of the candidates?
(a) F-test
(b) Linear regression method
(c) t-test
(d) Product-movement correlation.
58. What does the validity of psychological test mean?
(a) The test measures certain predetermined values
(b) The test measures something consisting
(c) The test measures what it purports to measure
(d) The test yields scores that are stable.
59. Which is the most objective psychological tool?
(a) Thematic Apperception Test
(b) Rorschach Test
(c) Interviews
(d) Intelligence test.
60. A set of questions asked and filled in by the interviewer in a face-to-face situation with another person is called
(a) A schedule.
(b) A checklist,
(c) A questionnaire,
(d) An opinionnaire.
61. When is type-I error increased?
(a) When alpha-level decreases
(b) When alpha-level increases
(c) When the sample size increases
(d) When the sample size decreases.
62. Sampling results into
(a) Greater accuracy.
(b) Reduced cost, and item.
(c) Control of extraneous variables.
(d) High precision.
63. Which is the most important characteristics of the survey method of research?
(a) It relies on a small sample
(b) It studies characteristics of a group instead of an individual
(c) It aims at developing some theory or the scientific laws
(d) It focuses on studying the cause effect relationship between variables.
64. What consideration a rating procedure involves?
(a) The trait to be rated
(b) The continuum on which rating is to be done
(c) The persons who will do rating
(d) All of these.
65. To which are the concepts of internal external criticisms associated?
(a) Validity of experimental designs of research
(b) Descriptive research
(c) Historical research
(d) Literary research.
66. It is undesirable on the part of the researcher
(a) To present a research report based on investigator’s own ideas and written in his own words.
(b) Stringing lots of quotations together.
(c) Getting the full meaning out of the author’s ideas and paraphrasing them in his own language.
(d) Concentrating on written material, eliminating unessential details.
67. Which is the purpose of theory building?
(a) Applied research
(b) Action research
(c) Fundamental research
(d) Survey research.
68. If the findings of a research have practical implications for improving educational patterns, it is called
(a) Pure research.
(b) Applied research.
(c) Descriptive research.
(d) Experimental research.
69. On the spot research aimed at the solution of an immediate problem is called
(a) Survey research.
(b) Fundamental research.
(c) Action research.
(d) Pure research.
70. Research concerned with the derivation of generalizations of broad applicability and only secondarily with any practical value is called
(a) Applied research.
(b) Fundamental research.
(c) Action research.
(d) Practical research.
71. Which of the following is not relevant to analysis of the research problem?
(a) Isolating the variables that are involved in the problem and clarifying their relationships
(b) Accumulating the facts that might be related to the problem
(c) Attending seminars on research methodology
(d) Proposing various relevant explanations (hypothesis) for the cause of the difficulty.
72. To which aspect are related questioning assumptions under-lying the problem?
(a) Identifying the problem
(b) Defining the problem
(c) Analysing the problem
(d) Stating the problem.
73. What does description of the research problem NOT include?
(a) Background of the study
(b) Theories on which it is based
(c) Assumptions underlying it
(d) Review of research done.
74. Which of the following is the least helpful to locating and analyzing problems?
(a) Exploring the literature in an area of interest
(b) Discussing with the research guide
(c) Examining every day experiences
(d) Critical analysis of the existing theories and practices.
75. To find out the relationship between intelligence and achievement after eliminating the effect of motivation, an investigator should use
(b) r123
(c) rxy
(d) rbis.
76. The correlation between two variables in which the effect of some other variable or variables on their relationship is controlled is called
(a) Contingency coefficient of correlation.
(b) Multiple correlations.
(c) Partial correlation.
(d) Product-moment correlation.
77. What is the nature of the statement that experimental genealizations are statistical inferences; they can only attain a degee of probability somewhere along a continuum between truth and falsity?
(a) Not wholly true
(b) Wholly true
(c) Incorrect entirely
(d) None of these.
78. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of non-parametric statistical tests?
(a) They can be used when data are in the forms of ranks or categories
(b) They can be used in situations where parametric tests are applicable
(c) They yield statements of exact probabilities irrespective of the shape of the population distribution
(d) They are less powerful than the parametric tests.
79. ANOVA does NOT assume that
(a) The treatment groups are selected at random from the same population.
(b) The adjusted scores within groups have normal distibution.
(c) The treatment groups are homogeneous.
(d) The treatment groups are drawn from a larger population.
80. Some activities described as ‘research’ like some M.Ed, and Ph.D dissertations should not be so designated because
(a) They just describe something and do not explain anything.
(b) They just compile information which is already available and hence, do not add to existing knowledge.
(c) The information they collect is of no value.
(d) The research they conduct cannot be classified into any standard type of research.
81. What is not correct about research?
(a) Research is begun because someone has asked a question and it has to answer it
(b) Research may involve venturing into areas of thought about which little is known
(c) Research has to be planned and conducted because it is a scientific way of gathering information
(d) Research is needed if the aim is to increase the extent of knowledge or to make it more complex.
82. What should be done for constructing and standardizing a psychological test?
(a) Should not be considered a research because it is a small-scale activity
(b) Should be considered a research of value because the test so developed can be used later by others
(c) Should not be considered a research because it does not test any hypothesis.
(d) Should be considered a valuable piece of research because a lot of labour and energy have gone into it.
83. What is the modern method of acquiring knowledge?
(a) Authority
(b) Personal experience
(c) Scientific method
(d) Expert opinion.
84. Deductively reasoning out the consequences of the suggested solutions is an aspect of thinking involved in the
(a) Older methods of acquiring knowledge.
(b) Psychological methods of acquiring knowledge
(c) Scientific method of acquiring knowledge.
(d) Personal experience as a method acquiring knowledge.
85. What is NOT the goal of scientific method of acquiring knowledge?
(a) Explanation
(b) Fact-finding
(c) Control
(d) Prediction.
86. Theory, as an aspect of research, does not
(a) Serve as a tool for providing a guiding framework for observation and discovery.
(b) Describe the facts and relationships that exist.
(c) Serve as a goal providing explanation for specific phenomena with maximal probability and exactitude.
(d) Discard facts, specific and concrete observations.
87. “Theory” helps the researcher in
(a) Understanding the research procedure.
(b) Identifying the facts needed to be considered in the context of the research problem.
(c) Understanding the technical terms used in research.
(d) Determining how to make or record observations.
88. Who have given the following suggestions about the analysis of data?
(i) Thinking over data through Meaning Table.
(ii) Carefully examining the problem statements.
(iii) Thinking over the problem like an ordinary person.
(iv) Using various ordinary statistical analysis
(a) Goode, Barr and Scates
(b) George J. Mouly
(c) W.S. Munroe
(d) John W. Best.
89. What type of statistical data are used in educational research?
(a) Descriptive statistical analysis
(b) Inferential statistical analysis
(c) Both of them
(d) None of these.
90. What are the functions of statistical analysis?
(a) Explanation of results
(b) Presentation of data
(c) Both of them
(d) None of these.
91. Which tests are used in explanation of results?
(a) Parametric tests
(b) Non-parametric tests
(c) Both of them
(d) None of these.
92. Which types of correlation are used in educational research?
(a) Co-efficient correlation
(b) Partial correlation
(c) Multiple cumulative correlations
(d) All of these.
93. What is the meaning of Null Hypothesis?
(a) Difference between two parametric mean is zero
(b) The difference is due to error in sampling
(c) Both of them
(d) None of these.
94. In t-test when separate samples are selected in two groups in one population or in two populations, the test used is
(a) Two-tailed test.
(b) One-tailed test.
(c) Analysis of variance.
(d) All of these.
95. When the achievement and degeneration of one group is to be tested in t-test, the test used is
(a) Two-tailed test.
(b) One-tailed test.
(c) Analysis of Variance.
(d) All of these.
96. In case of ANOVA what is the variance caused by treatment?
(a) SSAXB
(b) SST
(c) SSA
(d) SSw.
97. In case of ANOVA, what is SSW?
(a) The variance caused by the treatments
(b) The variance caused by the difference within the subjects
(c) The variance caused by the extraneous factors
(d) Total variance between the groups.
98. Which is not correct about non-parametric test of significance?
(a) They are distribution free tests
(b) They are small-sample tests
(c) They compare population distributions rather than the parameters.
(d) They make strong assumptions of homogeneity of variance of the groups to be compared.
99. When the questions are presented to the respondents in a face-to-face situation, and the interviewer rather than the subjects, fills out the query, it is called
(a) An Inventory.
(b) A Questionnaire,
(c) A Schedule.
(d) A Test.
100. An unguided interview of psycho-analytical nature permitting the subject to talk freely with a view to obtain insight into hidden motives is called
(a) A focussed interview.
(b) A non-directive depth interview.
(c) A directive interview.
(d) A structured interview.
Answers
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (c) 41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (b) 51. (d) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (b) 61.(a) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (d) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (b) 71. (c) 72. (c) 73. (d) 74. (c) 75. (b) 76. (b) 77. (b) 78. (c) 79. (d) 80. (c) 81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (d) 88. (a) 89. (c) 90. (c) 91. (c) 92. (d) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (c) 100. (b)